Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 01.07.2025 00:48

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?

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